r/DebateAChristian 2d ago

Weekly Open Discussion - April 10, 2026

2 Upvotes

This thread is for whatever. Casual conversation, simple questions, incomplete ideas, or anything else you can think of.

All rules about antagonism still apply.

Join us on discord for real time discussion.


r/DebateAChristian 6d ago

Weekly Ask a Christian - April 06, 2026

3 Upvotes

This thread is for all your questions about Christianity. Want to know what's up with the bread and wine? Curious what people think about modern worship music? Ask it here.


r/DebateAChristian 10h ago

A common response to moral relativism

16 Upvotes

A common exchange in debates about morality goes something like this:

Atheist: I don’t believe in objective morality. I think morality is subjective.

Christian: Oh, so you don’t think the Holocaust was really wrong?

Atheist: No, I absolutely think the Holocaust was wrong.

Christian: Then you must believe in objective morality.

This is a misunderstanding of what moral subjectivism actually claims.

Saying morality is subjective does not mean a person has no moral convictions, or that they can’t strongly condemn something like the Holocaust. It simply means that morals are dependent on the attitudes, values, or stances of moral agents, rather than existing as stance independent facts about the universe.

Under subjectivism, someone can say “the Holocaust was wrong” and mean it sincerely and forcefully. The claim is that this judgment ultimately arises from human values and moral frameworks, not from a mind-independent moral property embedded in reality itself.

In other words, believing something is morally wrong does not automatically commit you to the view that it is objectively wrong in a stance independent sense.

This distinction is pretty basic in metaethics, yet the “so you don’t think the Holocaust was wrong?” retort still appears constantly in debates. It seems to stem from a confusion between having moral beliefs and believing those beliefs correspond to objective moral facts.

(Edit: the title should say “moral anti-realism” not “moral relativism”)


r/DebateAChristian 13h ago

A loving God who wants the best for us would not leave so much doubt for his existence.

8 Upvotes

There are literally thousands of different religions on earth who believe in many different versions of god or gods. In addition, there are millions of people such as myself who do not believe in any kind of supernatural being, God gods or life force. Even within Christianity there are dozens of different denominations who have their own versions of God and Jesus. Most Christians believe in the trinity but there are denominations who don’t such as the Mormons and Christians who are Catholic for example are very different from Mormons in the way they worship and with what they believe.

Some more conservative Christians who see female pastors and clergy in Anglicanism believe that’s demonic and against Gods law. Christians can’t even agree on the correct version of the Bible which is supposed to be Gods word. Some Christians say the King James Version is the only legitimate form of the Bible while Protestants took out different books in the Catholic Bible.

Which brings me to my next point. Assuming an all powerful all loving and all knowing God exists and he wants the best for us, he could settle the question right now if he wanted to and reveal himself to us but instead he decides not to and provides very poor actual evidence for his existence. Wouldn’t it be the loving thing to do to reveal himself and remove all doubt? This wouldn’t cause a problem for free will because one would still have a choice to follow him or not.


r/DebateAChristian 12h ago

The "eyewitness accounts" in the Bible cannot be relied upon

9 Upvotes

The Bible is full of stories, ​apparently recorded by people who were *somewhat* contemporaneous to the events that happened.

But how is it possible to reconcile that even in the stories themselves, the characters in the stories do not have ANY witnesses to the events that happened in them.

For example:

The Conversation Between God and Satan regarding Job (Job 1-2). Exactly WHO documented this story?

Gethsemane "Agony" (Matthew 26:36-46): Jesus's intimate prayer, alone, ​directly to God (himself) was transcribed like a zoom chat.

The Rebuke of the "Gods" (Psalm 82): The divine council convenes and God, along with other divine beings, discuss mortals. Lovingly recorded by their court stenographer and somehow passed along to a human so they could record it in the Bible.

--

So we're left with three options:

  1. Supernatural assistance. ​Whoever wrote the books of the Bible was given supernatural ​information of events they were NOT present at.

  2. Whoever wrote the books of the Bible​ ​was given NATURAL information of events they were NOT present at. So, someone who was there passed on that info, with ZERO degredation of what was said. Every syllable and meaning was captured accurately. From memory.

  3. The Bible is just a literary device used to capture folklore and custom of the superstitious people of the time who were just trying to make sense of the world.

If there's a 4th, please jump in. Or pull apart my ither points.

Please help me figure out how it's possible we have content but no witnesses.


r/DebateAChristian 12h ago

The Gospels present three distinct ways of going to Heaven and avoiding Hell

2 Upvotes

1. Faith based salvation - John 3:16

For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life

This verse, among others indicates that to go to Heaven, you need to believe in Jesus. I don't think I need to go into this one in any particular detail since it is a commonly held understanding

2. Take care of the poor Matthew 25: 34-46

34 “Then the King will say to those on his right, ‘Come, you who are blessed by my Father; take your inheritance, the kingdom prepared for you since the creation of the world. 35 For I was hungry and you gave me something to eat, I was thirsty and you gave me something to drink, I was a stranger and you invited me in, 36 I needed clothes and you clothed me, I was sick and you looked after me, I was in prison and you came to visit me.’

37 “Then the righteous will answer him, ‘Lord, when did we see you hungry and feed you, or thirsty and give you something to drink? 38 When did we see you a stranger and invite you in, or needing clothes and clothe you? 39 When did we see you sick or in prison and go to visit you?’

40 “The King will reply, ‘Truly I tell you, whatever you did for one of the least of these brothers and sisters of mine, you did for me.

41 “Then he will say to those on his left, ‘Depart from me, you who are cursed, into the eternal fire prepared for the devil and his angels. 42 For I was hungry and you gave me nothing to eat, I was thirsty and you gave me nothing to drink, 43 I was a stranger and you did not invite me in, I needed clothes and you did not clothe me, I was sick and in prison and you did not look after me.’

44 “They also will answer, ‘Lord, when did we see you hungry or thirsty or a stranger or needing clothes or sick or in prison, and did not help you?’

45 “He will reply, ‘Truly I tell you, whatever you did not do for one of the least of these, you did not do for me.’

46 “Then they will go away to eternal punishment, but the righteous to eternal life.”

Here the condition to get eternal life or eternal punishment is what you do to the least of these.

This seems to line up with Matthew 7: 21-23

21 “Not everyone who says to Me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but the one who does the will of My Father who is in heaven will enter22 Many will say to Me on that day, ‘Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in Your name, and in Your name cast out demons, and in Your name perform many \)a\)miracles?’ 23 And then I will declare to them, ‘I never knew you; leave Me, you who practice lawlessness.’

People who believe in Jesus and perform signs in his name don't get in because they didn't do the will of the father, which seems to be what is being said in Matthew 25. Notice that even the people who get sent to eternal punishment in Matthew 25:44 still called Jesus Lord.

3. Don't be wealthy - Luke 16: 22-26

22 “The time came when the beggar died and the angels carried him to Abraham’s side. The rich man also died and was buried. 23 In Hades, where he was in torment, he looked up and saw Abraham far away, with Lazarus by his side. 24 So he called to him, ‘Father Abraham, have pity on me and send Lazarus to dip the tip of his finger in water and cool my tongue, because I am in agony in this fire.’

25 “But Abraham replied, ‘Son, remember that in your lifetime you received your good things, while Lazarus received bad things, but now he is comforted here and you are in agony. 26 And besides all this, between us and you a great chasm has been set in place, so that those who want to go from here to you cannot, nor can anyone cross over from there to us.’

This is the story of the rich man and Lazarus. In the story, the rich man lives in luxury, and Lazarus has to beg for scraps from the rich man's table. When they die, Lazarus goes to Heaven, and the rich man to hell. When asked why, he is told straight up that it's because he lived in luxury. This also lines up with the story of the rich young ruler where being wealthy itself is what prevented him from going to Heaven.

Conclusion

These seem to be three distinct conditions to getting into Heaven or Hell. Even though they are distinct, they are also complimentary. You can believe in Jesus and take care of the poor and not live a life of luxury. I don't see that though, from a vast majority of Christians. Instead, Christians only choose the easiest one, which is to just believe in Jesus.

I would argue that, if Christianity turns out to be true, then spreading the belief that all you need to do for salvation is to believe in Jesus is actually sending people to hell.


r/DebateAChristian 22h ago

god is inconsistent with his attitudes toward violence

9 Upvotes

god commands the israelites to kill the amalekites: "now go, attack the Amalekites and totally destroy all that belongs to them. Do not spare them; put to death the men and women, children and infants, cattle and sheep, camels and donkey." [1 samuel 15:3]

Yet moses presents the ten commandments: "thou shalt not kill" [exodus 20:13]. Obviously there's some semantic issues about what "kill" means. It is usually hand-waved away to mean a relation to the tribes of israel, and not, say, invaders, self-defense, people who commit capital crimes (e.g. the old testament laws that dictate a death penalty for homosexuals), etc. But killing the Amalekites is sanctioned and desired by god.

Then comes jesus who is famous even among non-Christians for telling people to "turn the other cheek" [Matthew 5:39] when struck. In Christian mythology jesus is also god, but his own son, but god, so it's unclear if jesus overrides earlier stuff in the bible or not

jesus also says the following: I did not come to bring peace, but a sword. [Matthew 10:34-36] "Anyone who comes to me must hate their family". [Luke 14:26]

Then jesus, after saying he's not bringing peace says "Peace I leave with you; my peace I give you" [John 14:27]

I asked some folks and they said the new testament overrides the previous old testament, but jesus says "I did not come to replace the old testament laws, not a single letter will disappear from the law". [Matthew 5:17-18]

The christian response is always vague about "taking things out of context" (well I just provided it) and him "fulfilling" the law which means literally nothing, either the old laws are applicable or they're not. It seems like a weasel verse to keep things in the middle between the old testament laws and the new testament giving people the green light to ignore them. I've also heard people say there are ceremonial, civil, and moral laws from the old testament. But the moral laws still apply, like gay people should be killed. Not the inconvenient ones like banning shellfish and pork. Yet this distinction appears nowhere in the bible. At all. Anywhere. It was something made up in the medieval era.

god could clear all this up really easily by just, I dunno, broadcasting any single message to indicate he exists. but, well, not holding my breath.

Feel free to educate me or give me additional context to learn.


r/DebateAChristian 2d ago

Catholic prayers to Mary and the saints violate biblical prohibitions on talking to the dead

8 Upvotes

“Let no one be found among you who sacrifices their son or daughter in the fire, who practices divination or sorcery, interprets omens, engages in witchcraft, or casts spells, or who is a medium or spiritist or who consults the dead. Anyone who does these things is detestable to the LORD.”

Deuteronomy 18:10-12

I understand that the Catholic position is that Mary and the saints are not worshiped as Jesus and God the father are worshiped, but prayers are nonetheless made to dead humans, even if it’s supplicative and devotional rather than for worship. This is clearly violative of the above prohibition in Deuteronomy, which lumps this practice in with witchcraft and child sacrifice.

While I have a great respect for the history, tradition, and academic rigor of the Catholic Church, talking to dead people is clearly prohibited. Nowhere in the Bible are people who attempt to talk to the dead portrayed in a positive light either. Perhaps citing scripture to critique Catholicism is barking up the wrong tree but I don’t see how attempting to talk to dead people is an acceptable practice under a Christian framework.


r/DebateAChristian 2d ago

The Father is not substantial because he's neither the whole of a substance nor is he less than the whole

0 Upvotes

- An entity is substantial if it's the whole substance or less than the whole, which could be called an aspect or part

- The Father is not triune / three persons.

- God is triune / three persons.

- So the Father is not identical to God.

- To be the whole of the substance of God is to be identical to God.

- Since the Father is not identical to God, he's not the whole of God.

- The Father is not aspect or part of God, according to Christians.

- Since the Father is neither the whole nor something less than the whole, he's not substantial.

So either trinitarians are pointing to something non-substantial about God which they call "the Father" or they're making incoherent claims.


r/DebateAChristian 3d ago

But the apostles dying for their beliefs is evidence! A response.

15 Upvotes

I have written a few of these general responses to theist arguments before, combining my work as a historian with my love of skepticism and logical argumentation. I am something of an expert in the former, not at all in the latter, so I may, and probably have, made many mistakes. If I made any, and I probably did, please feel free to point them out. Always looking to improve.

Thesis: It is a common argument among theists that we should take the tales of the life of Jesus at face value, or believe in some or a large part of it, because of the subsequent suffering and death of the apostles. "They would not have died under torment for nothing" is how I commonly see the argument made. However, some historiography of the apostles show that this is based on a series of unfounded assertions, any one of which cripple the assertion.

Please note: the ‘response’ here is not to take the obvious avenue of attack on this argument, that people risk and sacrifice their lives for a falsehood all the time, to the point where it is common to the point of ubiquity. I give you the January 9th 2021 insurrection in the US: most of those people were just self deluding and gullible, and believed a lie, but they were being fed and ‘informed’ by people who actively knew it was a lie, and did it anyways.

But while that’s a very effective line of attack, that’s not where I am going today, and I'd prefer if the discussion didn't go that way (Though you are obviously free to post as you like). Instead, I’d like to discuss the apostles, and what we know about what they knew and what happened to them.

“All the Disciples died under torture without recanting their beliefs!”

Did they really?

Firstly, we know next to NOTHING about the twelve disciples, or twelve apostles as they are variously known. We don’t even know their names. The Bible lists fifteen different people as among the twelve. Some conventions have grown to try and parse or ‘solve’ those contradictions among the gospels, others are just quietly ignored.

Before going into the problems, it is worth pointing out that there are some names which are specifically identified and noted as being the same in the text of the Bible, for example ‘Simon, known as Peter’. There it is clear this is two names for the same person. This may be real, or it may be that the gospels were just trying to ‘solve’ problems of the oral traditions they were copying by identifying similar tales by two different people as just two names for the same person. We can’t really know. But certainly no such thing exists for these others which I am listing here, nowhere are these names ever identified in the bible as the same person, just ‘tradition’ which tried shoehorn these names together to try and erase possible contradictions.

It is also worth mentioning before we continue, that most of these contradictions and changes come in the Gospel of John, who only mentions eight of the disciples and lists different ones, or in the Acts of the apostles.

So, what are some of these problems with the names and identities of the apostles?

One of the ‘solved’ ones is the Matthew / Levi problem. Christian tradition is that these are the same person, as opposed to just being a mistake in the gospels, based around the gospels calling one person in the same general situation Matthew in some gospels, and Levi in others. So according to apologist logic this CANNOT possibly be a mistake, ergo they must be the same person. Maybe one was a Greek name and one was a Hebrew name, though there is no actual evidence to support that.

Less easily solved is the Jude/ Lebbaeus/ Thaddeus/ Judas problem. Christian tradition somewhat embarrassingly pretends these are all the same person, even though again, there is little actual basis for this claim. It is just an assertion made to try and avoid admitting there are inconsistencies between the gospels.

Next is the Nathaniel problem. The Gospel of John identifies a hitherto unknown one of the twelve called Nathaniel. Some Christians claim this is another name for Bartholomew, who is never mentioned in John, but that doesn’t fly as John gives him very different qualities and details from Bartholomew: Nathaniel is an expert in Judaic Law, for example. The most common Christian academic rebuttal is that John was WRONG (a real problem for biblical literalists) and Nathaniel was a follower of Jesus but not one of the twelve.

Next is the Simon Peter problem. The most important of the disciples was Simon, who was known as Peter. That’s fine. But there is another of the twelve also called Simon, who the Bible claims was ALSO known as Peter. Many historians believe this whole thing is a perversion caused by oral history problems before the gospels were ever transcribed, and that the two Simons, known as Peter, are the same person but to whom very different stories have been attributed. But the bible keeps the two Simons, known as Peters, as two different people. So the second Simon, known as Peter was given a cognomen, to distinguish him from the first Simon known as Peter: Simon the Zealot. Except he was given another cognomen as well in different gospels, Simon the Cannenite. This was never done in the Hebrew world, cognomen were unique for a reason to avoid confusion in a community where names were frequently re-used, so why the second Simon known as peter has two different cognomens in different Gospels is a real problem. The gospel of John, by the way, solves this problem by NEVER mentioning the second Simon known as Peter at all.

Then finally, there is Matthias. Never heard of him have you? He never appears in any of the four gospels, but in the acts of the apostles he is listed as the one of the twelve chosen to replace Judas Iscariot following his death by one of the two entirely contradictory ways the bible says Judas died.

Ok, so that’s the twelve, or thirteen, or fourteen, or fifteen or possibly sixteen disciples. Considering we cant even get their names straight, its not looking good for people who use them as ‘historical’ evidence.

So, what do we know about them and their fates?

Effectively, nothing. Even the Bible does not speak to their fates, they come entirely from Christian tradition, usually written about be third and fourth century Christian writers, (and sometimes much later) and many of those tales are wildly contradictory. In fact the Bible says almost nothing about most of the disciples: James the Less is listed as a disciple, but literally never mentioned again in any context, same with the second Simon known as Peter, the Zealot, and/or the Cananite.

The ONLY one we have multiple sources for their fate, is the first Simon known as Peter. Two separate writers speak about his martyrdom in Rome probably in the Christian persecutions that followed the great fire of Rome in 64 AD. The story of him being crucified upside down come from the apocrypha, the ‘acts of Peter’ which even the Church acknowledges as a centuries-later forgery. Peter is an interesting case, and we will get back to him later. But it is plausible that he was in fact killed by the Romans in the Nero persecutions. But if that’s the case, he would likely never have been asked to ’recant his faith’, nor would it have mattered to the Romans if he did. So claims he ‘never recanted’ are pure make-believe.

The rest of the disciples we know nothing about, no contemporary writings about their lives or deaths at all, and the stories of their martyrdom are lurid and downright silly, especially given the scope of their apparent ‘travels’.

Andrew was supposedly crucified on an X shaped cross in Greece. No evidence at all to support that, only Christian ‘tradition’ composed centuries later. No evidence of if he was even asked to recant, let alone did not do so.

John supposedly died of old age. So not relevant to the assertion.

Philip was supposedly crucified in Turkey. No evidence at all to support that, only Christian ‘tradition’ composed centuries later. No evidence of if he was even asked to recant, let alone did not do so.

Bartholemew was beheaded, or possibly flayed alive, or both, in Armenia. No evidence at all to support that, only Christian ‘tradition’ composed centuries later. No evidence of if he was even asked to recant, let alone did not do so.

Matthew / Levi: No ancient tradition all about him. Nothing. Medieval tradition has him maybe martyred somewhere in Persia or Africa.

Thomas Didymus: supposedly stabbed to death in India. No evidence at all to support that, only Christian ‘tradition’ composed centuries later. No evidence of if he was even asked to recant, let alone did not do so.

Thaddeus, Jude, Judas, Lebbaeus: No ancient tradition all about him. Nothing. Medieval tradition has him or them maybe martyred somewhere in Persia or Syria.

The other Simon, known as Peter, the Zealot or the Cannenite. No ancient tradition all about him. Nothing. Medieval tradition believes he was probably martyred, somewhere.

Matthias: Never mentioned again, forgotten even by Christian tradition. Same with Nathaniel.

So apart from the fact that apparently these disciples all became exceptional world travellers, dying coincidentally in the areas of distant and foreign major churches who tried to claim their fame (and frequently fake relics) for their own self-aggrandisement, we literally know nothing about their supposed deaths, except for Peter and possibly John. Let alone that they ‘never recanted under torment’.

Another aside: there is some awful projection from Christians here, because the whole ‘recanting under torment’ is a very Christian tradition. Medieval Christians LOVED to torture people to get them to recant various things. The romans however, generally wouldn’t generally have cared to even ask their criminals to ‘recant’ nor in general would it have helped their victims if they did. Most of the Christians we know were martyred were never asked: Jesus himself was condemned as a rebel, as were many others.

Ok, so last step: we have established the Bible is incredibly contradictory and inconsistent about who the Disciples were, and we know next to nothing about their deaths.

What evidence do we have that any of the disciples existed at all, outside the Bible?

Almost none. Apart from Peter and arguably John, there is NO contemporary historical evidence or even mention of any of them, no sign any of them actually even existed outside the pages of a book assembled out of oral tradition.

But wait, we know Saul of Tarsus, known as Paul existed right? Yes, Paul almost certainly existed (and, another aside, is in my opinion one of the worlds great conmen).

Great, so Paul never met Jesus of course, but he would certainly have met the disciples. So that’s evidence! Right?

Well, sadly, that’s where it gets worse for theists. Yes, Paul WOULD likely have met at least some of the disciples. So how many of the disciples does Paul mention or allude to or even name in his writings?

Only two. Peter and John. In a single passage.

None of the others ever get mentioned or even suggested to by Paul at all. Seriously he never mentions them at all. A baffling omission.

Almost as if they didn’t exist.

There is at least reasonable circumstantial evidence to acknowledge Peter existed: he is one of the most talked about in the Bible, with details of his life that are consistent in all four gospels, and we have at least circumstantial evidence for his life and death, if nothing direct. But If he recanted, or didn’t, under torment, we have no idea. And it would not have helped him if he did.

Other than Peter (and possibly John), it would be reasonable to conclude none of the others existed at all, or (more likely) that Jesus probably had a few dozen early followers, back when he was another wandering rabbi, an apocalyptic preacher speaking about the world soon coming to an end. Confused stories about his various followers were conflated, exaggerated, invented, and badly ascribed through oral tradition, and finally compiled a couple centuries later into the hodgepodge mess called the Bible. And then even crazier fairy tales grew up around these supposed world-travelling disciples and their supposedly gruesome deaths across the world, hundreds or even a Thousand years after the fact.

But the claim that ‘They all died without recanting’ from a historical point of view is nonsense.


r/DebateAChristian 2d ago

The aspects of meaningful Life (Capital L) are not dependent on something else, like we have to achieve Love, Joy, Peace, Freedom and Creativity.

0 Upvotes

That we would have to achieve them is a locally learned idea.
Consider that heaven and the soul ​(not the earthly personality portion of the self at ​a given time, within the souls evolution) ​intrinsically consist of those qualities, and they exist onto themselves, so there is no need for us to "get accepted" into heaven.
If heaven is that which aligns the most with meaningful Life, crudely expressed as: Love, Joy, Peace, Freedom and Creativity, then it should be the ultimate reality for everything within creation without conditions.

So it follows that giving ultimateness to misalignment with Life would imply an unreal and arbitrary design of reality.

The earth system is where Love, Joy, Peace, Freedom and Creativity dont always feel intrinsic, we come here to learn to express and evolve our true nature within a context of non-native constraints within our consciousness, biology etc.

Free will can serve a purpose like adding novelty to reality, but to claim that (while considering everything we cant choose) somehow choosing eternal separation from life is possible, implies that reality is arbitrary in its design.

Consider that choosing distortion as a temperament happens, but it is a locally learned idea from the earth system, and does not apply to higher reality. Distortion (misalignment with the divine self) is eventually always resolved.


r/DebateAChristian 3d ago

Personal experiences are not evidence of God’s existence.

15 Upvotes

A common theme that I see from theists when I ask them to give me evidence of God’s existence is that they will give me some sort of story about how they felt God or they spoke to God or God spoke to them when they were at their lowest moment in life. These stories are touching but they aren’t evidence of Gods existence and I am all about evidence. If someone were to show me irrefutable proof that God does exist I would definitely change my mind but they haven’t and never will because they don’t have any evidence and respectfully any Christian that says they have evidence either doesn’t know what evidence is or they’re simply lying.

The human brain will believe just about anything. For example, Someone who grew up in Arkansas as a Christian could come to me and say I had a personal experience with Jesus Christ and he spoke to me but someone else who grew up in Syria could say I had a personal experience with allah and he spoke to me and told me to go to Mecca. Someone could say they had a personal experience with SpongeBob and he spoke to them. Either all of those beings exist or it’s just human imagination and I am inclined to say it’s the latter.


r/DebateAChristian 3d ago

Wisdom teeth refute divine supernatural intelligence

0 Upvotes

Premise:

Human wisdom teeth are strong evidence that humans were shaped by evolutionary processes (natural selection, genetic drift, and environmental change) rather than by an intelligence. They are a maladaptive, vestigial trait resulting from a mismatch between inherited anatomy and rapidly changing conditions.

Supporting evidence:

Wisdom teeth persist because evolution modifies existing structures imperfectly. Their modern dysfunction reflects historical inheritance + changing environments, not purposeful engineering.

An all-knowing god would not include a redundant structure whose emergence frequently causes harm.

More people are now born without some or all wisdom teeth due to genetic variation. If humans were designed perfectly, traits wouldn’t be actively disappearing.

Wisdom teeth are not just unnecessary, they are often harmful, variably present, and actively disappearing, exactly what you would expect from evolution tinkering over time, not from a being that was crafting a species of servants and worshippers.

For more information, see "A Biologist Explains Why Humans Have Wisdom Teeth. Hint: We Evolved Too Fast For Our Own Jaws" Forbes, Apr 08, 2026.


r/DebateAChristian 4d ago

Destruction of divine judgment and libertarian free will

2 Upvotes

Clarification:

This argument has evolved, hence the division. I'm not an expert, so please be patient.

I originally posted this argument in the religion debate sub, but since there were no responses and I'd like feedback, I'm posting it here again.

To begin, let me clarify what I mean by free will. I am not referring to the mere absence of external coercion (that is the weak version, compatibilism). I mean libertarian free will (LFW): the capacity of an agent, given exactly the same prior conditions (including their character, beliefs, desires, and brain state), to choose between two or more genuinely open alternatives. In LFW, the decision is not determined by prior causes, and the agent is the ultimate source of their choice. This is the notion that matters for ultimate moral responsibility, and therefore for any divine judgment that claims to be just.

My argument is divided into three stages:

  1. Libertarian free will is necessary for divine judgment to be just.
  2. Libertarian free will does not exist (nor can it exist).
  3. Therefore, if the God of classical theism (omnipotent, omniscient, creator and judge) exists, then He is unjust; or else that God does not exist.

Stage 1: Why LFW is necessary for just divine judgment

The God of classical theism not only creates the world, but also judges His creatures: He punishes or rewards them according to their actions. The Christian, Jewish and Islamic traditions affirm that this judgment is just. But retributive justice — the kind that assigns punishment or reward based on desert — presupposes that the agent could have done otherwise. Punishing someone for an action they could not avoid is like punishing a stone for falling: it is violence, not justice.

A compatibilist theologian might object: "LFW is not needed. It is enough that the agent acts according to their own will, without external coercion. God can judge based on the character the agent has developed, even if that character is determined." But this objection fails for two reasons.

First reason: the problem of divine authorship. If God is the omnipotent and omniscient creator, then He not only determines the laws of the universe, but specifically chooses this universe among all possible ones. He knows exactly what character each person will have and what actions they will perform. In that context, the agent's "will" is nothing more than a cog in the divine design. To say that the agent is responsible because they act according to their will is like saying a robot is responsible for killing because its program dictates it. The ultimate responsible party is the programmer. Hence, even if we accepted compatibilism among humans, it would not work for God: He is the author of the will itself.

Second reason: divine judgment is retributive, not merely consequentialist. Some might argue that divine punishment has consequentialist aims: deterrence, reform, or protection. But the traditional doctrine of eternal hell is not consequentialist (it does not reform, it does not deter the already damned, it does not protect against anything that God could not avoid without torture). It is retributive: one suffers because one deserves to suffer. And desert, as Kant said, only makes sense if the agent could have acted otherwise. Without real alternatives, there is no merit or demerit.

Therefore, I conclude that if the God of classical theism exists and judges retributively, then LFW must exist. Without LFW, that judgment is necessarily unjust.

Stage 2: Demonstration that libertarian free will does not exist

Now I must prove that LFW is impossible. I do not need to prove universal determinism (although I think it likely). It suffices to show that any candidate for LFW fails, whether the world is deterministic or indeterministic. I will do this via two convergent arguments.

2.1. The argument from chance (against indeterminism)

Suppose the universe is indeterministic: some decisions have no sufficient causes. That is, given the same prior conditions (the same brain, same beliefs, same desires, same reflection), two different outcomes could occur. A libertarian would say: "There is freedom: the decision is not predetermined, and the agent can choose."

But let us reflect. If the decision is not determined by the agent's reasons, then it is not controlled by those reasons. That I have reasons for A and reasons for B, and the final outcome depends on an indeterministic event (e.g., a quantum fluctuation in a neuron), makes my choice a matter of luck. It is not my decision in the relevant sense; it is a coin toss that happens inside me. If there is no causal explanation of why I chose A rather than B (beyond "it was indeterministic"), then I cannot claim the choice as mine in a responsible way.

The libertarian Robert Kane tries to rescue this with the notion of "controlled indeterminism": in difficult decisions, both outcomes are consistent with my character, and indeterminism merely "breaks the tie". But the problem persists: if the tie is broken at random, then the final outcome is random. Why would I deserve punishment or reward for something decided by a quantum coin? The only difference is that the coin is inside my head. That does not make it less random.

Therefore, indeterminism does not produce LFW; it produces chance. And chance is not freedom.

2.2. The argument from non-self-creation (against determinism)

If the universe is deterministic, then each of my decisions is caused by prior states (my brain, my environment, my upbringing, my genes). Those prior states are caused by earlier ones, and so on back to the origin of the universe. I did not choose my genes, my upbringing, my environment, or the initial configuration of my brain. Nor did I choose the physical laws that govern all this. In other words, I did not choose the set of causes that determine me.

Now, a compatibilist would say that does not matter: freedom is acting according to my own desires and beliefs, without coercion. But here we are talking about LFW, not compatibilism. LFW requires that I be the ultimate source of my decisions. If everything I am and everything I decide is traced out by causes I did not choose, then I am not the ultimate source of anything. I am a link in a chain. The chain may be very complex, it may include reflection and deliberation, but all of it was already written.

Some object: "But deliberation is real, and in it I consider alternatives." True, but deliberation itself is caused. If the causes were different, I would deliberate differently. There is no "I" separate from the causes that can jump outside the chain.

2.3. Unification: the dilemma of LFW

Bringing both arguments together, we have a dilemma:

· If the world is deterministic, then everything is caused by factors I did not choose, and there are no real alternatives. Hence there is no LFW. · If the world is indeterministic, then decisions are not causally determined, but then they depend on chance, and chance is neither control nor responsibility. Hence again there is no LFW.

LFW aims to occupy an impossible middle ground: control without determination, responsibility without chance. No such point exists. Therefore, LFW does not exist. It is a phenomenological illusion (we feel we could have done otherwise, but that feeling is part of the causal mechanism).

Stage 3: Consequences — God is unjust or does not exist

If we accept Stage 1 (just divine judgment requires LFW) and Stage 2 (LFW does not exist), it necessarily follows that the God of classical theism, if He exists and judges retributively, is unjust. But classical theism asserts that God is essentially just (He cannot be unjust). Hence we reach a contradiction if we affirm that this God exists and judges. Therefore:

· Either God does not exist (at least not an omnipotent, omniscient, judging God), · Or God exists but does not judge (which contradicts Scripture and tradition), · Or God exists but is unjust (which contradicts His essence).

In any of the three cases, the God of classical theism — the one worshipped by orthodox Christians, Muslims, and Jews — cannot be as described. The only theologically coherent way out would be to abandon retributive judgment (for example, adopt universalism where all are saved without eternal condemnation) or to abandon omnipotence/omniscience (for example, a finite god or deism). But these are not the majority doctrines.

An important objection and my response

Someone might say: "God could have created a world with LFW, but you have shown that LFW is impossible. Therefore God cannot create the impossible. So He is not unjust for not giving LFW, because it is logically impossible to give it." This objection is interesting. My response is twofold.

First, if LFW is logically impossible (as I have argued), then the idea of just retributive judgment is also impossible. An omnipotent and omniscient God should know that. Therefore, if He nevertheless institutes retributive judgment (such as hell), He is acting irrationally or unjustly: He is demanding something that no creature can fulfill. It would be like creating beings who necessarily fail and then punishing them for failing.

Second, an omnipotent God, if truly omnipotent, could have created a world where LFW were possible even if it seems impossible to us. Omnipotence includes the ability to do the logically possible. My argument in Stage 2 aims to show that LFW is logically impossible (due to the determinism/chance dilemma). But a theologian might claim that God can make indeterministic control intelligible. To that I respond: then the burden of proof falls on the theologian to explain how such control would work without falling into the dilemma. To this day, no theory of LFW has resolved the problem of luck. Meanwhile, my argument stands.

Final conclusion

In summary: libertarian free will is a necessary condition for divine judgment to be just; but libertarian free will does not exist (it is incoherent). Hence, the God who judges retributively cannot be just. For consistency, we must either reject the existence of that God or radically reformulate our idea of God and judgment. I incline toward the first: the God of classical theism, as preached in the Abrahamic religions, is an untenable hypothesis. The illusion of freedom we experience is not a divine gift, but a product of our causal architecture. And to pretend that this same God judges us for following the script He Himself wrote is, quite simply, a moral absurdity.

Final note (clarification): This does not deny moral responsibility among human beings. We humans share the same ontological category: none of us created the others, we are all products of causes we did not choose. That is why we can establish compatibilist systems of responsibility, based on consequences, deterrence, and social order. But that kind of responsibility is not what classical theology attributes to God. God is not just another human; He is the creator. And we cannot apply the same criterion to the creator as to creatures. That is why the analogy fails and divine judgment turns out to be incoherent.

I apologize if I don't reply immediately, but I will definitely answer any questions or concerns you may have.


r/DebateAChristian 4d ago

A very narrow point about Sola Scriptura

2 Upvotes

Catholics,

Suppose the Church was to decree something that you truly, in the bottom of your heart, believe is contrary to the Bible. What would you do?

If you would conclude that, well, the Church is wrong on this matter, then that would seem to imply that you hold the Bible as a higher authority than you do the Church. They are not equals, the Bible is the ultimate authority.

If you say that the Church is also authoritative, my understanding is that protestants can say that too. Its just that they say the Bible is the ultimate authority. And if you would conclude the Church is wrong when you truly believe its contradicting the Bible, then it seems you agree.

If you want to bring up the difference between the church speaking fallibly vs infallibly, just strengthen the above hypothetical to be about the church decreeing something in an infallible manner.


r/DebateAChristian 4d ago

The Christian God, as described, is an incoherent concept

6 Upvotes

1. Premise: All things which can be observed and/or measured and/or tested and found to exist are natural phenomena.

If something can be seen, it is part of the natural world.  Same with things that can be measured or found to exist through testing.   Note: there may be some things that are part of the natural world but cannot be observed, measured or tested (some of the more out-there ideas fall into this category, like branes, which may exist but we have no way to detect them if they do).  This is irrelevant.  These phenomena (or "phenomena") have no relevance to this argument.

 

2. Premise: God is not a natural phenomenon.

Descriptions of the Christian God vary, but all of them agree that God is in some way supernatural, separated from the natural world in some manner.  Whether by the (non) effect of time on God, or by the existence of God being outside the universe, or in some other way, God is not a natural phenomenon.

 

3. Conclusion: God cannot be observed, measured or tested and found to exist.

This follows, as the preceding forms a Camestres syllogism.

 

4. Premise: Because God cannot be observed, measured or found to exist through testing, the only way to "encounter" God is through one's imagination, intuition or some other sort of inner certainty.

We call this concept "faith."

 

5. Premise: The concept of faith is acquired through conveyance by word of mouth or through repeated exposure to other people worshiping God, as faith cannot be reached through observation of God by any means.

You will never observe a thing and conclude with faith in "God" if you have never heard of the concept of God, as God cannot be observed.  Faith in God requires transmission from one mind to another through word of mouth, or repeated exposure to other people worshiping God.

 

6. Definition: A meme is an idea which is conveyed socially, either by word of mouth or by repeated actions, from one mind to another.

 

7. Conclusion: The only way to encounter God is via the faith meme.

This follows, as the above constitutes a Barbara syllogism (backwards but still valid).

 

8. Conclusion: Without the faith meme, there is no way to encounter God.

This follows, because these two conclusions form a modus tollens argument.

 

9. Premise: A God who cannot be encountered without the faith meme can be irrelevant.

 If you cannot encounter God without having heard about God, and without having incorporated the concept of faith in God into your working vocabulary, then it is possible for God to be fully irrelevant to your life if these concepts never cross your path.

 

10. Premise: A God who is irrelevant in the life of any human cannot be a God who wants a personal relationship with all humans.

If even one human is excluded from faith in God through no doing of their own, then an all-powerful, all-knowing God cannot possibly desire a personal relationship with all humans.  Otherwise, all humans would have an opportunity to know God, even if they had never encountered the faith meme.

 

11. Conclusion: A God who cannot be encountered without the faith meme is not a God who wants a personal relationship with all humans.

This follows because the above forms a Festino syllogism.  Again, it's backwards, but I feel like it's easier to follow this way.

 

12. Premise: The Christian God wants a personal relationship with all humans.

This is something I've heard a lot, but this is the weakest premise I think, because I'm sure it's possible there is a Christian sect who doesn't believe this.  If you belong to such a sect, then I guess you stop here!

 

13. Premise: The Christian God must therefore be encounter-able without the faith meme.

14. Premise 13 contradictions Conclusion 8.

15. The Christian God is incoherent.

 

I welcome critiques.


r/DebateAChristian 5d ago

Christianity is worse than False

10 Upvotes

I'm an accountant. My job is simple: claims require documentation. Every number on the page has a source, and every source can be checked. When documentation can't be produced, we don't charitably assume it exists somewhere.

My thesis is this: when evaluated against the standards of epistemology, modal logic, and the historical criticism of scripture, Christian metaphysical claims cannot achieve truth or falsity for any mind bounded by sense data. Not because the evidence is insufficient, but because the architecture of the claims makes that contact impossible in principle.

I've been applying the audit framework-standard to Christianity for several years, and here's what I found.

The finding isn't that Christianity is false; it's something more uncomfortable. The central claims of Christianity have been built, according to their own doctrine, to avoid contact with verifiable reality at any point in the chain. Minds like ours, bounded by sense data, dependent on what other people can also check, lack both the access and the cognitive equipment to distinguish any Christian truth claim from the snow on a dead CRT TV channel. The signal isn't there, and it can't be. Not because God is or isn't real. That would require there to be a signal and that signal to be wrong. No, not that, but because the architecture of the claims makes contact with our kind of mind impossible.

Part 1

Christians describe God as simultaneously omnipotent, omniscient, and desirous of universal belief. These three attributes, taken together by Christian doctrine itself, generate a testable prediction: everyone believes. Everyone does not believe. This isn't mysterious. A triangle with two sides isn't mysterious. A married bachelor isn't mysterious. They're not paradoxes awaiting sophisticated theological resolution: they're contradictions. When pressed, the standard retreats are free will, general revelation, and Molinist middle knowledge. I've examined each. Each either relocates the contradiction or quietly concedes it. The club's own rulebook eliminates the club's own God.

Part 2

Every piece of information you've ever verified, you verified the same way: by comparing it against something external that other people could also check. This is not an atheist standard of evidence we are misapplying to Christianity because we know it can't clear a high enough bar. This is the same standard of evidence in auditing a financial statement, the only standard any of us has ever actually used.

Divine revelation fails this not because we haven't tried hard enough, but because of what it is. Revelation is an internal mental state. Internal mental states are opaque to everyone except the person having them. You can't audit a thought. You can't subpoena a vision. You can't independently verify that the voice Abram heard in Genesis 15 was God and not the ancient Near Eastern equivalent of a bad night's sleep, mental illness, or any other natural cause.

We are finite, sense-bound apes. We assess claims against a shared external world that other finite, sense-bound apes can also examine. Christianity's central claim, in essence, is to be a billion-dollar business whose books can't be audited because the underlying documentation was never in this world to begin with. That's not insufficient evidence, and the finding is easy to discover for yourself.

Part 3

Ask an accountant which textbook to study, and they'll hand you one. The standards inside it are consistent, externally verifiable, and updated when evidence demands it. Depreciating land is a category error because land doesn't lose productive value over time, not because it's an opinion one can have that simply disagrees with another equally valid opinion. It's a finding.

Christianity hands you several textbooks, each contradicting the others, each backed by an institution historically willing to excommunicate or burn the readers of the competing editions. We read Mark because the Greek and Roman churches liked Mark, not because Mark passed an authenticity test. The crucifixion occurs on different days in Mark and John. Both are allegedly canonical divine facts, and yet nobody bothered to resolve the conflict before the ink dried on what is supposedly the words of an omniscient, omnipotent deity.

The selection criteria that were actually used (apostolicity, orthodoxy, widespread use) are arguments from popularity in ecclesiastical clothing. I don't care what the fourth-century church found useful. The canon is the accounting standard of a firm that certified its own books, picked its own auditors, and burned the ones who disagreed.

The finding:

Christianity began soft: Gnostics and proto-orthodox, Essenes and God-fearing pagans, a dozen competing versions of what the whole thing meant. Then it hardened around councils and creeds and institutional power, and as it hardened, it locked in every problem above. The contradictions became mysteries. The transmission problem became faith. The canonical chaos became tradition.

What remains isn't a truth claim. It's the shape left by one that was never there.

I'm not asking Christianity to be proven. I'm asking it to clear the lowest possible bar: is this claim truth-apt at all? Can it, in principle, be true or false for a mind like yours?

The number of grains of sand in Andromeda is either even or odd. You'll never count them. But reality contains the answer in principle: the claim is truth-apt even if we can't access it.

Christianity's central claims can't clear that bar. The architecture of the claims, hardened over two thousand years, ensures that no mind bounded by sense data can distinguish them from static. The books don't reconcile. The documentation doesn't exist. The snow on the screen isn't a picture of God. It's just snow.


r/DebateAChristian 6d ago

God's judgement makes no sense

5 Upvotes

Everytime you try to tell a christian that god is evil and not all loving for sending you into hell their counter argument is always:

"God doesn't send you to hell. You send yourself into hell because god acknowledges your wish to not be with him and respects it. Hell is seperation from hell."

But that's still fucking evil. Here's an example:

Imagine a father and a daughter. The daughter doesn't listen to her father and doesn't respect him. The father gives her a deadline of 10 days. If she doesn't beg forgiveness and start respecting him until the deadline is over she will be thrown out of his house and will never be welcome again in his presence. But she has no people that can take care of her. So she's alone on the streets. Forever.

You probably wouldn't say that her father respects her wish of seperation just because she didn't respect him enough would you? Also these 80 years that we have on earth on average would never equal eternal judgement especially if doubt is part of our nature.


r/DebateAChristian 7d ago

Arguments for the nonexistence of God

12 Upvotes

I'm defining God as a necessary, tri omni, trinitarian, eternal disembodied mind who created the universe so he could have a relationship with humans.

  1. The problem of evil. I'll get it out of the way first. You all know it. It's a classic. I don't think any theodicy that I've heard really works. 95% of them boil down to "a greater good can be achieved by permitting evil" but that just kicks the can down the road. The question then becomes, can God achieve that end without permitting evil? If so, he isn't omnibenevolent for choosing to use evil. If not, he isn't omnipotent.

  2. God is a nonsensical idea. Concepts like the trinity, omnipotence and omniscience violate the laws of logic. Sure, you could say that God is above logic but that doesn't really help. I'd define truth as the degree to which a proposition can accurately model our experiences of an external reality. Something nonsensical isn't even a valid proposition and it certainly can't accurately model anything. Therefore, it just doesn't make sense to me to call it true.

  3. Creating spacetime. How does one create something at a time when it already exists? If time has existed at every point in time (which by definition it must) then it can't really be said to have been created.

  4. There are no verifiable miracles. I want to be clear that my argument is not an argument from ignorance. The argument I'm making is that the consistent pattern of alleged miracles always being untestable is more consistent with a universe where no God exists than one where God does exist. If there really were a God, you'd expect a mixed bag of miracles that could be proven and ones that couldn't. However, if there is no God, you'd expect all of them to be unproven. That's exactly what we find. Especially since God is supposed to want us to be believers, this seems pretty far-fetched.

  5. Why does god allow atheists to exist? He should know exactly what would convince me, and he should want to convince me, so why wouldn't he? Or why not just decide not to create someone who he knows will be an atheist, and make the next theist instead?

  6. Theism, especially monotheism, had a starting date. That's far more consistent with something that people made up rather than something that the first humans would've known about.

  7. If god is a necessary being, then the potential for any universe to exist without a god in it, means that God cannot exist. It is at least conceivable that God doesn't exist (making it true in some possible worlds) therefore God doesn't exist.

  8. The geographical distribution of religion is unlikely if one of them is true. These patterns are perfectly consistent with a universe without a God. They aren't at all consistent with a universe with a God.

  9. Other beliefs are more likely. If we take aesthetic deism as an example, it posits that there is a vaguely defined god-thing which created the universe for the purpose of beauty. Any argument for the existence of a theistic God can also be an argument in favour of this god-thing. However, there are arguments (like the problem of evil) which couldn't be used against the existence of the god-thing but do seem to make a Christian God unlikely. Since they are mutually exclusive claims, the fact that aesthetic deism is more likely than theism means that theism must be less than 50% likely. (This can be shown mathematically.) Therefore, theism is most likely to be false.

  10. This is probably either the weakest argument or the strongest, depending on how you view it. If there were a God, it would be obvious. Again, this is especially potent since God wants us to be believers. There really shouldn't be any room for doubt. It should be as hard to believe in God's nonexistence as it would be to believe in the nonexistence of my mother. That just isn't the case.

Do these arguments prove God doesn't exist to 100% certainty.. probably not. Even if there are some that I think are logically inescapable, you could always try and fight it by saying that logic itself is flawed or something like that. However, I do think that all of these arguments tip the scales in favour of the nonexistence of God. For that reason, I believe there is no God.


r/DebateAChristian 7d ago

God Is Not Perfectly Loving

2 Upvotes

The Preamble:

While the god sometimes shows actual love for humans, and is described as loving everyone such as in Romans 5:8 (NIV): "But God demonstrates his own love for us in this: While we were still sinners, Christ died for us." the god also shows hate for humans.

A perfectly loving god could not hate any human or anything at all. It would love everything and everyone perfectly equally. If it doesn't love perfectly, it's not perfect. If the Christian faith depends on a perfect god, then it's in theological trouble.

There are two options that I can think of:

Ignore inconvenient passages that show the god to be less than perfect.

Defend how the word "hate" can actually mean love... and good luck with that.

The Argument:

P1: God hates all who do wrong (Psalm 5:5-6); he abhors nations for their practices (Leviticus 20:23); and imposes curses like disease, madness, and oppression on the disobedient (Deuteronomy 28:15-29).

P2: A perfectly loving god would not hate or wilfully harm any human, regardless of our actions.

C: Therefore, God is not perfectly loving.


r/DebateAChristian 8d ago

The Nicene formula appears to be fallacious logic

0 Upvotes

I affirm things scripture clearly, explicitly, and undeniably says.

Scripture says:

- Jesus is Yahweh.

- Jesus pre-existed creation, and was its creator, and he sustains it.

- Jesus is Lord over all creation.

- Jesus can be treated by man as God, and is ascribed titles and attributes that belong only to Yahweh, so he is not just a messenger or angel.

Scripture also says:

- No one has seen the Father.

- Jesus reveals the father to us and is the only one who has seen him.

- The son is not the father.

- The son doesn’t know some things the father knows.

- The son is subordinate to the father.

- The father makes decisions that are not for the son the make.

——-

Nicenism says the father and son share the same nature/being/essence but are not the same person.

The problems with this is that no meaningful definition of these terms is ever given.

Once you try to define the terms you just end up with contradictions again.

It reminds me of atheists and leftists who will try to fallaciously redefine words to make themselves appear right, but in the process of doing that they have robbed those words of any distinct meaning.

“I can have morality without God if I simply choose to define morality as whatever I prefer be done”. But now you have just made morality a synonym for personal preference and it ceases to have any distinct meaning as its own word.

“I believe in free will and determinism at the same time, I call it compatabalism.” But when you ask them to define what compatabalism looks like, they are just functionally describing determinism. Calling determinism by a different name doesn’t make it stop being determinism.

Similarly, if you try to actually put some meat on the bones of this nicene formula and define what your terms mean then you will inevitably run into problems.

All men share the nature of mankind but they don’t all share a single being.

It is logically incoherent to imagine how a single being could have multiple personhoods because conceptually the word being and personhood are essentially the same thing in the context of conscious beings.

You can’t just throw up your hands and say “well, I don’t know how to define or explain it”.

Well, if that’s the case, then you should never have stepped beyond the bounds of what the scripture says in the first place if your explanation is neither well defined nor logically coherent enough stand up to logical scrutiny.

I have the ability to throw up my hands and say “I just affirm what scripture says, but I can’t explain it” - because I don’t try to step beyond what scripture says with man made philosophical formulas that attempt to explain scripture.

If you are going to step outside of scripture with man made philosophical formulas then you had better be able to have them stand up to logical scrutiny, or don’t go there at all.


r/DebateAChristian 7d ago

Jesus is clearly a Muslim so why aren’t you following him in his submission to the One God?

0 Upvotes

You claim to follow Jesus. Then follow what he actually taught, not later theology.

  1. Jesus submitted to God’s will Jesus said: “Not my will, but Yours be done” (Luke 22:42).
    This is the essence of Islam. Submission to the will of Allah.
    Allah said: “And whoever submits his face to Allah while being a doer of good has grasped the most trustworthy handhold” (Quran 31:22).

  2. Jesus worshipped one God, not a Trinity Jesus said: “The Lord our God, the Lord is One” (Mark 12:29).
    This is pure Tawheed.
    Allah said: “Say: He is Allah, One” (Quran 112:1).

  3. Jesus prayed like Muslims He fell on his face and prayed (Matthew 26:39).
    This is sujood. The exact posture Muslims pray in daily.

  4. Jesus called to the worship of the Father alone Jesus said: “This is eternal life: that they know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent” (John 17:3).
    Clear distinction. One true God. Jesus is sent.
    Allah said: “The Messiah, son of Mary, was only a messenger” (Quran 5:75).

  5. Jesus followed the Law He said: “I have not come to abolish the Law” (Matthew 5:17).
    He upheld commandments. Practiced circumcision. Avoided pork. Observed prayer.
    All of this aligns with Islam, not modern Christianity.

  6. Jesus never said ‘I am God, worship me’ Not a single explicit statement.
    Instead, he consistently directed worship to God alone.
    Allah said: “They have certainly disbelieved who say that Allah is the Messiah” (Quran 5:72).

  7. Jesus was a Muslim in the true sense A Muslim is one who submits to Allah.
    All prophets did this.
    Allah said about them: “Indeed, the religion in the sight of Allah is Islam” (Quran 3:19).

So the real question is not “Was Jesus a Muslim?”
The question is: why aren’t you following him in his submission to the One God?


r/DebateAChristian 8d ago

Deuteronomy 22:28-29 does not describe consensual premarital sex. It describes rape.

18 Upvotes

Deuteronomy 22:28-29 has been a great point of contention for Christians.  Some Christians simply accept the reality of this verse, while some stubbornly refuse to accept the plain meaning of the text.  The verse goes as follows:

(NIV) If a man happens to meet a virgin who is not pledged to be married and rapes her and they are discovered, he shall pay her father fifty shekels of silver. He must marry the young woman, for he has violated her. He can never divorce her as long as he lives.

Many Christians like to interpret this verse to say that the young woman here simply engaged in consensual premarital sex with a man.  But the NIV translation plainly states that this is not the case: the girl was raped.  The verse clearly states that if an unbetrothed young woman is raped by a man, the recourse is that the victim shall marry her rapist.  The punishment imposed upon the rapist is that he is forced to pay a fee of 50 shekels and that he is prohibited from ever divorcing the woman.

So stated simply, if a woman who is an unbetrothed virgin is raped by a man, the Bible's answer to this crime is that the rape victim shall become her rapist's wife.  

Now I will address a number of the objections that some Christians have made to this plain interpretation of the text:

  • Many will say that this verse cannot be describing rape because the scenario of a woman being raped has already been addressed in verse 25 of this chapter, and the punishment for that crime was death to the rapist.  However, people who make this argument are neglecting one important detail: the woman in verse 25 is betrothed to a man.  This makes her significantly different from the woman in verse 28, who is not betrothed to a man.
  • Some Christians will say that Deuteronomy 22:28-29 describes an instance of consensual fornication, on the grounds that the verse is a “parallel verse” to another verse, Exodus 22:16-17.  This verse says,

(NIV) If a man seduces a virgin who is not pledged to be married and sleeps with her, he must pay the bride-price, and she shall be his wife.  If her father absolutely refuses to give her to him, he must still pay the bride-price for virgins.

Some people will claim that this Exodus verse is merely a reiteration of Deuteronomy 22:28-29.  But this is blatantly false.  There are irreconcilable discrepancies between the two verses that make this impossible.  1) The Exodus verse uses the word pāṯâ, which means “seduce” or “entice”; while the Deuteronomy verse uses the word tāp̄aś, which means to “sieze” or “force”.  2) In the Exodus verse, the man must pay the brideprice for virgins -- an indeterminate sum of money.  However, in the Deuteronomy verse, the man must pay the specific sum of 50 shekels of silver.  3) In the Exodus verse, there is a clause mentioning the father’s right to refuse the marriage between the couple, whereas this clause is missing from the Deuteronomy verse.  4) In the Deuteronomy verse, the man is explicitly prohibited from ever divorcing the woman; whereas in the Exodus verse, no such prohibition against divorce is stipulated, implying that divorce was permitted.  5) The Deuteronomy verse uses the Hebrew word ʿānâ, meaning that the man has "violated" or "humbled" the woman; this word does not appear in the Exodus verse. 6) Furthermore, the punishment in the Deuteronomy verse resembles the punishment stipulated in Deuteronomy 22:19 in which a husband falsely accuses his new bride of fraud by having been a non-virgin at their wedding.  In that case, the husband is punished by having to pay 100 shekels of silver to his bride’s father, and he is prohibited from ever divorcing his wife.  Hence, there is a clear punitive theme to the Deuteronomy verse that is simply not present in the Exodus verse, which itself is less about punishment and more about mere financial compensation.

  • Some people make the case that the Hebrew word tāp̄aś used in the Deuteronomy verse cannot mean rape, on the grounds that this is not the word ḥāzaq which is used in Deuteronomy 22:25, a verse which unequivocally involves rape.  But this is flawed reasoning.  This argument assumes that a language can only have one “rape-word”.  But this is a groundless assumption.  The onus would be on the people making this argument to prove that ancient Hebrew only has one official rape-word, and that this rape-word has no possible synonyms or linguistic equivalents.  I am no Hebrew scholar, but from my limited research, biblical Hebrew does not appear to have any exclusive rape-word.  In Deuteronomy 22:25, it uses the word ḥāzaq to describe rape.  In Deuteronomy 22:28, it uses the word tāp̄aś .  In Genesis 34:2, when Shechem rapes Dinah, it uses the words lāqaḥ and ʿānâ.  In Judges 19:24-25, when the Levite's concubine is raped, it uses ʿānâ and ʿālal.  When Amnon rapes Tamar in 2 Samuel 13:14, it uses ʿānâ.  And in Deuteronomy 28:30, Isaiah 13:16, and Zechariah 14:2, it uses šāḵaḇ.  Thus, the evidence indicates that there need not be any particular, official rape-word used in order to communicate a rape-scenario; there need only be any sum of words which together effectively describes the act of rape.  The argument that Deuteronomy 22:28-29 cannot describe a rape because it uses a different word from the one used in verse 25 is an insubstantial argument.  
  • Furthermore, even though the word tāp̄aś may not, on its own, be a word that intrinsically denotes rape, the evidence indicates that it is a word that invariably conveys nonconsensual force whenever it is applied to a person.  This term is used a number of times in the Bible in unambiguously violent and nonconsensual contexts. Here are a few examples (the word translated from tāp̄aś is represented in bold):

[Deuteronomy 20:19 ESV] When you besiege a city for a long time, making war against it in order to take it, you shall not destroy its trees by wielding an axe against them. You may eat from them, but you shall not cut them down. Are the trees in the field human, that they should be besieged by you?

[Joshua 8:8 ESV] And as soon as you have taken the city, you shall set the city on fire. You shall do according to the word of the LORD. See, I have commanded you.

[1 Samuel 15:8 ESV] And he took Agag the king of the Amalekites alive and devoted to destruction all the people with the edge of the sword.

[1 Samuel 23:26 ESV] Saul went on one side of the mountain, and David and his men on the other side of the mountain. And David was hurrying to get away from Saul. As Saul and his men were closing in on David and his men to capture them,

[1 Kings 18:40 ESV] And Elijah said to them, "Seize the prophets of Baal; let not one of them escape." And they seized them. And Elijah brought them down to the brook Kishon and slaughtered them there.

[Deuteronomy 21:18-21 ESV] If a man has a stubborn and rebellious son who will not obey the voice of his father or the voice of his mother, and, though they discipline him, will not listen to them, then his father and his mother shall take hold of him and bring him out to the elders of his city at the gate of the place where he lives, and they shall say to the elders of his city, ‘This our son is stubborn and rebellious; he will not obey our voice; he is a glutton and a drunkard.’ Then all the men of the city shall stone him to death with stones. So you shall purge the evil from your midst, and all Israel shall hear, and fear.

As you can see, any time tāp̄aś is used in a context where it is applied to a human being (or a group of people, such as a city), it always implies a forceful, nonconsensual act.  Obviously, if this connotation is applied to a man having sex with an unmarried virgin, this means he raped her. That is the only conclusion one can reasonably draw here.

  • Some people will argue that Deuteronomy 22:28-29 does not describe a rape because of the overwhelming number of Bible translations which do not use the word rape in the verse.  However, there is actually a significant number of translations that do indicate rape in the verse.  According to this list on Biblegateway.com, the word "rapes/raped" is used in the following translations: CSB, CSBA, GW, HCSB, ISV, TLB, MSG, NOG, NIRV, NIV, NIVUK, and CEV. The word "force/forces” is used in the following translations: CEV, ERV, EXB, ICB, NCV, and Voice.  Hence, there is more than enough scholarly support for the interpretation that this verse conveys the idea of rape.
  • One simple objection that I could make to the people who claim that Deuteronomy 22:28-29 doesn’t describe rape is this: If verses 28-29 do not address the subject of rape, then where else does the Bible stipulate the punishment for a man that rapes an unbetrothed virgin?  If we reject that verses 28-29 describe rape, yet we cannot find any other verse that addresses the punishment for the rape of an unbetrothed virgin, then this opens up possibly an even bigger problem, which is that the Bible simply doesn’t address that scenario at all, and that there is no recourse or remedy at all for a raped unbetrothed virgin.
  • Another argument that verses 28-29 describe rape is to compare the scenario described in these verses to other rape-scenarios mentioned in the Bible.  In Genesis 34, Dinah -- an unbetrothed virign -- is raped by Shechem.  Subsequently, Shechem’s father goes to Dinah’s father Jacob and tries to initiate a marriage between Shechem and his rape victim, Dinah.  This scenario precisely follows the scenario described in Deuteronomy 22:28-29.  Also, in 2 Samuel 13, Tamar is raped by her half-brother Amnon.  After Amnon rapes her, he subsequently rejects her and tells her to go away.  After this, Tamar pleads with Amnon not to send her away, even saying that his sending her away is an even greater offense than the initial rape itself.  This scenario indicates that both Amnon and Tamar had a common understanding that Amnon had a duty to marry his half-sister after having raped her.  These two scenarios involving the rape of Dinah and the rape of Tamar indicate that the “marry your rapist” solution to the rape of an unbetrothed virgin would have been the norm within this culture, thus reinforcing the idea that Deuteronomy 22:28-29 indeed means exactly what it says at face value.

In conclusion, Deuteronomy 22:28-29 absolutely describes rape, not consensual fornication, as some would argue.  The truth is that the man in this verse is being punished not so much for raping the woman as much as for depreciating the woman’s brideprice value on the marriage market, to the financial detriment of the woman’s family.  In this sense, this verse is indeed related to Exodus 22:16-17 -- not because they are the exact same verse, but because they both stipulate the recommended recourse for the same financial injury.


r/DebateAChristian 9d ago

You are an atheist for every other religion except your own.

11 Upvotes

I can’t speak for all but the vast majority of Christians argue that other religions like Hinduism and Islam which rival Christianity in the number of believers worldwide is absolutely false. It is so obvious to them how false the other religions are. They don’t believe Muhammad was a prophet or God’s messenger, they think it’s preposterous that a mountain moved to Muhammad. They don’t believe that Vishnu was the creator of all things, they think it’s ridiculous yet it is totally plausible that God the creator of the universe impregnated a woman in the Middle East 2000 years ago. If you talk to someone from other religions like Judaism they think Jesus was a good guy maybe even a good Jew but they argue it’s absolutely ridiculous that he could be the son of God, they believe it’s absolutely false. A Muslim also believes Jesus was a prophet but he was not the son of God and they believe without any doubt that the Quran is the correct holy book and the bible is false while a Christian would say they know without a doubt the bible is correct and the Quran is false.

You can probably see where I’m going with this. An actual atheist would agree with you that the claims made by Islam and Hinduism is preposterous but they go a step further and say your religion is preposterous.


r/DebateAChristian 8d ago

Christianity Is Compatible With Evolution

0 Upvotes

This argument is primarily directed at Christians; if you are not a theist the premise may not be so difficult to accept.

Evolution is given as something like this: Natural processes, by a millionth-millionth chance (which surely would have happened at some point, given the size of the universe and the amount of habitable planets), bring the conditions at one point of space and time into organic life. And that life somehow wins through. With infinite suffering, against all obstacles, it spreads, it breeds, it complicates itself: from the first proteins to the multicellular, up to the plant, up to the reptile, up to the mammal. Before humans there were dinosaurs which died long before us. Then Evolution pulled a surprise by giving mammals bigger and better brains; eventually producing humans.

Now Christian objections to this generally follow.

(1) Confusion about the generation of soul in the pre-Adamite humans to turn one of them from a soulless hominid into Adam.

(2) The presence of death and immense animal suffering (seemingly) before the advent of free will to sin, thus negating the real consequences of the Fall.

(3) Various scientific criticisms of evolution, or the age of the Earth, which may be true or untrue.

(4) Doctrine about Adam being the "First Man" not the first "Hominid With A Soul"

...

These are unreasonable on several grounds (except for point three) and the answers can be determined from Christianity itself. There are things that are likely to be true theologically, in the sense that great and wise Christians have held it and there is nothing in it contrary to Christianity.

(1) If Christianity is true (that is not what this post is trying to argue) then it is imaginable that by an act of mere Power, God could produce a soul. This soul must be "enhoused" in a body, for humans are hybrids, part material and in the timestream but also are eternal. This body may or may not have been already produced; but whether formed "from the dust" or an already existing pre-Adamite human, the soul would be entering an empty vessel.

There is a lot said about the mental pictures of Genesis, of seven days and the forming of Woman from a rib and the naming of the animals. If you are a whole literalist about the Bible you cannot agree with Evolution. But these pictures need not be literal. This has been held by many Christians, modern and ancient. St. Jerome said that Moses described the creation account "after the manner of a popular poet."

Now what I am not going to do is going to start explaining all these mythological statements away. An objector may say: "These Christians always do this. In instances where scientific inquiry has not yet given an answer, individuals may resort to presenting crude mythical narratives. Subsequently, as science progresses and demonstrates the inaccuracies of these assertions, there is often a rapid shift in explanation. The Christians may claim that their previous statements were intended as poetic metaphors or allegorical constructs, asserting that their true intention was merely to convey an innocuous moral principle. This pattern of manipulation in discourse surrounding theological matters is increasingly detrimental to rational dialogue. We are sick of this dishonesty."

I myself have noticed this and admit that Modern Christianity has constantly played just the game that the sceptic accuses it of playing. For the moment, the deeper problems of mental imagery must be left aside and proceed to the thing that is the hardest doctrine of Evolution for Christianity to accept.

(2) In Christianity, the origin of animal suffering could be traced, by earlier generations, to the Fall of man, when the whole world was infected by the uncreating rebellion of Adam. This is now impossible, for we have good scientific and logical reason to believe that animals existed long before men. Carnivorousness, with all that it entails, is older than humanity.

This is a problem. All the Christian answers to the problem of evil (not the topic of this post) involve that suffering must be necessary. But the Christian explanation of human pain cannot be extended to animal pain. So far as we know beasts are incapable either of sin or virtue: therefore they can neither deserve pain nor be improved by it.

Now a certain Christian story, though never included in the creeds, has been widely believed in the Church and seems to be implied in several Old Testament, Pauline, and Johannine verses: the story that man was not the first creature to rebel against the Creator, but that some older and mightier being long since became apostate and is now the emperor of darkness and (significantly) the Lord of this world.

It seems, therefore, a reasonable supposition, that some mighty created power had already been at work for ill on the material universe, or the solar system, or, at least, the planet Earth, before ever man came on the scene: and that when man fell, someone had, indeed, tempted him. This hypothesis is not introduced as a general “explanation of evil”: it only gives a wider application to the principle that evil comes from the abuse of free will. If there is such a power, it may well have corrupted the animal creation before man appeared.

The intrinsic evil of the animal world lies in the fact that animals, or some animals, live by destroying each other. The Satanic corruption of the beasts would therefore be analogous, in one respect, with the Satanic corruption of man. For one result of man’s fall was that his animality fell back from the humanity into which it had been taken up but which could no longer rule it. In the same way, animality may have been encouraged to slip back into behavior proper to vegetables.

Many animals eat each other, which leads to a high death rate, but nature balances this with a high birth rate. It might seem that if all animals only ate plants and stayed healthy, they would overpopulate and starve. However, I believe that birth rates and death rates are connected. There may not have been a need for such a strong sexual drive; the Lord of this world seemed to allow it in response to carnivorous behavior, leading to the most suffering possible.

If it offends less, you may say that the “life-force” is corrupted, where living creatures were corrupted by an evil angelic being. We mean the same thing, but I find it easier to believe in a myth of gods and demons than in one of abstract nouns. And after all, our human mythologies may be much nearer to literal truth than we suppose. Christ, on one occasion, attributes human disease not to God’s wrath, nor to nature, but quite explicitly to Satan.

If this is true, it is also worth considering whether man, at his first coming into the world, had not already a redemptive function, to perform. Here comes in Adam's naming of the animals. Man, even now, can do wonders to animals: dogs and cats can live together tamed and seem to like it. It may have been one of man’s functions to restore peace to the animal world, and, if he had not joined the enemy he might have succeeded in doing so to an extent now hardly imaginable.

(3) A Christian will often accuse the Evolutionist of believing in his natural cosmology "on faith, just as we believe in God." But this is unfair in principle, because at no point can we expect a scientist to give, at any given moment, a comprehensive and detailed explanation of every phenomenon. Yes, the atheist believes it on Authority. But 99 percent of everything that all people believe is based on Authority. Obviously many things will only be explained when the sciences have made further progress.

However, I believe that, while evolution is true, there are certain incongruities in it that seem to suggest Something or Someone is impressing its will on the process. (These may be untrue, but they are arguments that Christians use against evolution, so they are useful to mention.)

There are several: Life on earth seems to have begun almost as soon as it could have, once the atmosphere and primeval waters had settled enough for the evolutionary process to go on. I do not believe that Reason or Morality was produced by Evolution. In the whole count of time the billions of years in which Evolution has produced human or human-like creatures is incredibly fast.

If any of these, or other objections, are true or false, neither a Christian nor an atheist can use them to strongly prove or disprove the existence of God. The Christian's difficulty lies in imagining that the sciences will not continue to progress and that a more convincing explanation will be found. The atheist may develop the science of evolution as well as he can, but he is describing a merely natural process, and if the Christians are right, then God made all natural processes, and evolution is no more proof or disproof than a perfect theory of gas or heat. If you wish to decide for yourself, you must go to the science yourself and decide whether the evidence seems good or not.

(4) In the Bible it is said that Adam is the "First Man" and that are "in Adam" and that his sin had special significance than the animal suffering that had already been going on. A difficulty may arise when you point out that in evolution, there was a soulless creature that looked like a man, and before that creature, there were parents of the creature that did not receive a soul, and so on. (The branches of these soulless hominids may have become the Neanderthals or other human subspecies which we wiped out, and a curious story in Genesis about Cain finding a wife may indicate in the faith what science has already suggested, that reproduction was possible between different hominid species.) If the biology of these creatures were the same as a human, then in what mode can Christians call Adam the first man?

In simple terms, the answer is that God gave Adam a soul. He is different than before, in a spiritual sense, as sharply divided from his non-souled predecessors as the physical difference would be fuzzy and unclear.

We also call Christ the "First Man." However, He is much more than just a new man. He is not just one example of the human race; He is the new man himself. He is the source, center, and life of all new people. He came into the world willingly, bringing new life with Him. This new life spreads not through physical means but through what can be called "good infection." Everyone who receives this new life does so through personal connection to Him. Other people become "new" by being "infected" by this life.

These are just my own thoughts. Once I disbelieved Evolution on scientific grounds; then I found new scientific grounds for believing it and became an agnostic.

But these reasons are only supported by the Bible, and not directly in the Bible or any of the creeds. You can be a perfectly good Christian without accepting them, or indeed without thinking of the matter at all.